I’m attempting to calculate the maximum mass flow rate through a ½†diameter leak in a refrigerant line. Why? California Mechanical Code requires abatement of refrigeration machine room exhaust if there is a potential for the concentration of the accidentally released refrigerant exceeds 25% LEL or 50% IDLH. The exception to the abatement requirement requires approved exhaust plume calculations concluding such concentrations would not be possible.
I had two choices, prove that the machine room exhausted airflow would never exceed the 25% LEL or 50% IDLH or model the exhaust plume to determine the concentration of refrigerant at the adjacent property boundary. I decided to calculate the exhausted airflow through the ½†diameter leak. I calculated it by estimating the mass flow rate for choked flow (sonic flow).
The equation that was selected is the Rasouli and Williams source model (found on this website):
CD (A / V) (g R / M)^1/2 [(k - 1)/(2k)] k3/2 [2/(k + 1)]^a (T0 / P0^ b )^1/2 (t2 - t1) = P2^c- P1^c
By solving for pressure and varies times after initial discharge and assuming issetropic flow, I solve for corresponding temperature:
(T2 / T1) = (P2 / P1)^(k -1)/k
I solve for mass flow with the ideal gas law
W = P V M / R T
There’s one assumption that I’m not sure is valid and I’, hoping to get feedback. What is the source volume? Is the source volume the approximate volume of pipe and shell on both the high pressure side (downstream of the compressor and upstream of the expansion valve) and the low pressure side (downstream of the expansion valve and upstream of the compressor)?
If it’s only the high pressure side, do I assume the volume of saturated liquid refrigerant and the volume of saturated vapor are essentially equal?
Does anyone have any thoughts?

Any input asides from requesting that I simply fudge it would be greatly appreciated!